[Apr 05, 2026] Pass Your 312-39 Dumps Free Latest EC-COUNCIL Practice Tests [Q39-Q62]

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[Apr 05, 2026] Pass Your 312-39 Dumps Free Latest EC-COUNCIL Practice Tests

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EC-COUNCIL 312-39 (Certified SOC Analyst (CSA)) certification exam is designed to test a candidate's knowledge and skills in the field of Security Operations Center (SOC) analysis. Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certification is ideal for individuals who are looking to advance their career in the security field and take on roles such as SOC analysts, incident response analysts, and threat hunters.


EC-COUNCIL 312-39 (Certified SOC Analyst (CSA)) certification exam is a globally recognized certification that demonstrates the candidate's ability to handle cybersecurity incidents effectively. Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certification is suitable for IT and cybersecurity professionals who want to advance their careers in SOC analysis. Passing the exam requires thorough knowledge and skills in various areas, including network security, incident management, and computer forensics.

 

NEW QUESTION # 39
Emmanuel is working as a SOC analyst in a company named Tobey Tech. The manager of Tobey Tech recently recruited an Incident Response Team (IRT) for his company. In the process of collaboration with the IRT, Emmanuel just escalated an incident to the IRT.
What is the first step that the IRT will do to the incident escalated by Emmanuel?

  • A. Incident Prioritization
  • B. Incident Classification
  • C. Incident Recording
  • D. Incident Analysis and Validation

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 40
An organization wants to implement a SIEM deployment architecture. However, they have the capability to do only log collection and the rest of the SIEM functions must be managed by an MSSP.
Which SIEM deployment architecture will the organization adopt?

  • A. Self-hosted, MSSP Managed
  • B. Self-hosted, Jointly Managed
  • C. Self-hosted, Self-Managed
  • D. Cloud, MSSP Managed

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 41
Sam, a security analyst with INFOSOL INC., while monitoring and analyzing IIS logs, detected an event matching regex /\\w*((\%27)|(\'))((\%6F)|o|(\%4F))((\%72)|r|(\%52))/ix.
What does this event log indicate?

  • A. SQL Injection Attack
  • B. XSS Attack
  • C. Parameter Tampering Attack
  • D. Directory Traversal Attack

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following Windows Event Id will help you monitors file sharing across the network?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Windows Event ID 5140 is used to monitor file sharing across a network. This event is triggered every time a network share object is accessed, and it generates once per session when the first access attempt is made. It is part of the Audit File Share category and provides information about the access, including the user and device that accessed the share, the network address from which the access was made, and the name of the share that was accessed.
References:The information about Event ID 5140 can be found in the Microsoft documentation for Windows security auditing, specifically under the Advanced security audit policies related to Audit File Share1.


NEW QUESTION # 43
Mike is an incident handler for PNP Infosystems Inc. One day, there was a ticket raised regarding a critical incident and Mike was assigned to handle the incident. During the process of incident handling, at one stage, he has performed incident analysis and validation to check whether the incident is a true incident or a false positive.
Identify the stage in which he is currently in.

  • A. Incident Disclosure
  • B. Post-Incident Activities
  • C. Incident Recording and Assignment
  • D. Incident Triage

Answer: D

Explanation:
The stage of incident handling that involves incident analysis and validation to determine if the incident is a true incident or a false positive is known as Incident Triage. This stage is critical as it helps in prioritizing incidents based on their severity, impact, and urgency. The process of triage typically includes an initial assessment to confirm the validity of an incident, categorize its type, and determine the appropriate response.
References: The EC-Council's SOC Analyst course outlines the incident handling and response process, which includes the triage stage as a key component12. This is further supported by the NIST framework, which details the stages of incident response, including detection and analysis, where triage is a fundamental activity1. The Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) training also emphasizes the importance of incident triage in the overall security operations center (SOC) workflow3.


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following attack can be eradicated by using a safe API to avoid the use of the interpreter entirely?

  • A. LDAP Injection Attacks
  • B. File Injection Attacks
  • C. Command Injection Attacks
  • D. SQL Injection Attacks

Answer: C

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a correct flow of the stages in an incident handling and response (IH&R) process?

  • A. Incident Triage -> Eradication -> Containment -> Incident Recording -> Preparation -> Recovery -> Post-Incident Activities
  • B. Containment -> Incident Recording -> Incident Triage -> Preparation -> Recovery -> Eradication -> Post-Incident Activities
  • C. Preparation -> Incident Recording -> Incident Triage -> Containment -> Eradication -> Recovery -> Post-Incident Activities
  • D. Incident Recording -> Preparation -> Containment -> Incident Triage -> Recovery -> Eradication -> Post-Incident Activities

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct flow of stages in an Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process typically follows a structured approach that begins with Preparation, which is crucial for an effective response to incidents. This is followed by Incident Recording, where details of the incident are documented. Incident Triage is the next stage, where incidents are prioritized based on their impact. Containment strategies are then employed to limit the spread of the incident. Eradication involves removing the threat from the affected systems. Recovery is the process of restoring systems to normal operation. Finally, Post-Incident Activities involve learning from the incident and improving future response efforts.
References: The stages of the IH&R process are outlined in various EC-Council resources, including the EC- Council's Certified Incident Handler (E|CIH) program and related training materials, which emphasize the importance of a structured and methodical approach to incident handling and response123.
Reference: https://blog.elearnsecurity.com/the-4-steps-of-incident-handling-response.html


NEW QUESTION # 46
At GlobalTech, the SOC team detects a suspicious ransomware outbreak affecting multiple endpoints. After successfully isolating the infected systems from the network, the Digital Forensics team begins their investigation. They deploy a forensics workstation to acquire RAM dumps, extract Windows Event Logs, and collect network PCAP files from the compromised hosts. Which phase of the Incident Response lifecycle is currently underway?

  • A. Containment
  • B. Eradication
  • C. Evidence gathering and forensic analysis
  • D. Recovery

Answer: C

Explanation:
The described activities-acquiring RAM dumps, extracting event logs, and collecting PCAPs-are evidence gathering and forensic analysis. This phase focuses on preserving and analyzing artifacts to understand what happened, how it happened, and what the scope is. RAM capture can reveal in-memory indicators such as encryption keys, injected code, running processes, network connections, and credential material that may not be present on disk. Windows Event Logs provide timelines for process creation, logons, privilege changes, and service activity. PCAP data supports validation of lateral movement, C2 communication, and exfiltration paths. Containment has already occurred in the scenario (infected endpoints were isolated), and eradication would involve removing ransomware, closing persistence, patching exploited paths, and ensuring the threat cannot return. Recovery is restoring systems and data to normal operations. In SOC practice, evidence collection should occur as early as safely possible (often immediately after containment) to avoid losing volatile artifacts, which is why the forensic team is acting now. Therefore, the current phase is evidence gathering and forensic analysis.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following security technology is used to attract and trap people who attempt unauthorized or illicit utilization of the host system?

  • A. Intrusion Detection System
  • B. Honeypot
  • C. Firewall
  • D. De-Militarized Zone (DMZ)

Answer: B

Explanation:
A honeypot is a security mechanism that serves as a decoy to attract and trap individuals attempting unauthorized or illicit activities. It is designed to mimic a real system that appears vulnerable and valuable to attackers. The primary purpose of a honeypot is to distract attackers from legitimate targets, gather intelligence on attack strategies and behavior, and ultimately improve the overall security posture by learning from the attacks it captures.
* Attraction: The honeypot presents itself as an attractive target to potential attackers by simulating vulnerabilities.
* Engagement: Once the attackers engage with the honeypot, their activities are monitored and logged without their knowledge.
* Analysis: The data collected from these interactions is then analyzed to understand attack patterns, techniques, and goals.
* Improvement: This intelligence is used to enhance security measures, such as updating firewall rules or improving intrusion detection systems.
References:
* The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program includes training on various security
* technologies, including honeypots, as part of its curriculum to prepare individuals for roles in Security Operations Centers (SOC)1.
* EC-Council's resources on cybersecurity also provide detailed explanations of honeypots, their purposes, and their implementation within a cybersecurity framework2.
* Additionally, the role of a SOC Analyst often involves understanding and potentially deploying honeypots as part of a broader security strategy3.


NEW QUESTION # 48
You are working as a SOC analyst for a cloud-based service provider that relies on PostgreSQL databases to store critical customer data. During a security review, you discover that logs are not being generated for failed authentication attempts, slow queries, or database errors. This lack of visibility is making it difficult to detect threats and investigate suspicious activity. To ensure PostgreSQL captures and stores logs for centralized monitoring and forensic analysis, which configuration parameter should you enable?

  • A. logging-collector
  • B. log_collector
  • C. loggingcollector
  • D. logging-collector (with space)

Answer: B

Explanation:
In PostgreSQL, the configuration parameter that enables writing logs to files via the logging collector process islog_collector. When enabled, PostgreSQL can collect stderr output from backend processes and route it into log files, which is foundational for centralized log shipping and retention. From a SOC standpoint, turning on log collection is necessary but not sufficient: you typically also need to configure what gets logged (authentication failures, statement duration thresholds for slow queries, and error verbosity), define log line prefixes for consistent parsing, and set rotation/retention to meet operational and compliance needs. However, the question specifically asks which parameter should be enabled to ensure PostgreSQL captures and stores logs, and log_collector is the correct parameter name and casing. The other options include incorrect naming or formatting. Once enabled, the SOC team can forward PostgreSQL logs to the SIEM to correlate database activity with identity, endpoint, and network signals-critical for detecting brute force attempts, suspicious administrative actions, and anomalous query behavior.


NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following formula is used to calculate the EPS of the organization?

  • A. EPS = number of normalized events / time in seconds
  • B. EPS = number of security events / time in seconds
  • C. EPS = number of correlated events / time in seconds
  • D. EPS = average number of correlated events / time in seconds

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the context of a Security Operations Center (SOC), EPS typically refers to "Events Per Second," which is a measure of the number of security events processed in one second. The correct formula for calculating EPS in a SOC environment is the number of correlated events divided by the time in seconds. Correlated events are those that have been analyzed and aggregated by the SOC's security information and event management (SIEM) system, indicating a potential security incident. This metric helps in understanding the operational load and performance of the SOC.
References: The information is aligned with the EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) course material and best practices, which emphasize the importance of understanding and managing SOC operational metrics such as EPS for effective security monitoring and incident response12.


NEW QUESTION # 50
Daniel is a member of an IRT, which was started recently in a company named Mesh Tech. He wanted to find the purpose and scope of the planned incident response capabilities.
What is he looking for?

  • A. Incident Response Mission
  • B. Incident Response Vision
  • C. Incident Response Resources
  • D. Incident Response Intelligence

Answer: A

Explanation:
Daniel is seeking to understand the Incident Response Mission, which outlines the purpose and scope of the incident response capabilities within his organization. The mission statement typically defines the primary objectives and the intended direction for the incident response team (IRT). It serves as a guiding principle for the IRT's operations, helping to align their activities with the broader goals of the organization's security posture.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program provides extensive knowledge on SOC operations, including the fundamentals of incident response. The CSA certification emphasizes the importance of understanding the mission of incident response as part of a SOC analyst's role1. Additionally, EC-Council's resources on incident response highlight the significance of having a clear mission to guide the incident handling process2.


NEW QUESTION # 51
Emmanuel is working as a SOC analyst in a company named Tobey Tech. The manager of Tobey Tech recently recruited an Incident Response Team (IRT) for his company. In the process of collaboration with the IRT, Emmanuel just escalated an incident to the IRT.
What is the first step that the IRT will do to the incident escalated by Emmanuel?

  • A. Incident Prioritization
  • B. Incident Classification
  • C. Incident Recording
  • D. Incident Analysis and Validation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
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NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following stage executed after identifying the required event sources?

  • A. Implementing and Testing the Use Case
  • B. Identifying the monitoring Requirements
  • C. Validating the event source against monitoring requirement
  • D. Defining Rule for the Use Case

Answer: D

Explanation:
After identifying the required event sources in a Security Operations Center (SOC) process, the next stage is to define rules for the use case. This involves specifying the criteria or conditions that will trigger alerts or actions based on the data received from the identified event sources. It is a critical step in ensuring that the SOC can effectively monitor and respond to security events.
References: This step is a standard practice in SOC operations and is supported by various cybersecurity frameworks and guidelines. It is also discussed in the context of the EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program, which emphasizes the importance of defining rules and alerts to manage and respond to security incidents1.


NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following factors determine the choice of SIEM architecture?

  • A. DNS Configuration
  • B. Network Topology
  • C. SMTP Configuration
  • D. DHCP Configuration

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 54
Identify the type of attack, an attacker is attempting on www.example.com website.

  • A. Cross-site Scripting Attack
  • B. Denial-of-Service Attack
  • C. Session Attack
  • D. SQL Injection Attack

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 55
Shawn is a security manager working at Lee Inc Solution. His organization wants to develop threat intelligent strategy plan. As a part of threat intelligent strategy plan, he suggested various components, such as threat intelligence requirement analysis, intelligence and collection planning, asset identification, threat reports, and intelligence buy-in.
Which one of the following components he should include in the above threat intelligent strategy plan to make it effective?

  • A. Threat pivoting
  • B. Threat buy-in
  • C. Threat trending
  • D. Threat boosting

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the context of a threat intelligence strategy plan, 'threat trending' is a critical component that should be included to make the plan effective. Threat trending involves analyzing data over time to identify patterns and trends in cyber threats. This allows an organization to anticipate potential future attacks and prepare accordingly. It is an essential part of a proactive threat intelligence program, enabling the organization to stay ahead of threats rather than just reacting to them.
The other options, while they may be relevant in certain contexts, are not as central to the development of a threat intelligence strategy plan as 'threat trending' is. 'Threat pivoting' refers to the process of using one piece of data to uncover more data (e.g., using an IP address to find related domains). 'Threat buy-in' is not a standard term in threat intelligence, but it could refer to gaining organizational support for threat intelligence efforts. 'Threat boosting' is not a recognized term in the field of cybersecurity.
References: The answer is derived from the components of a threat intelligence strategy as outlined in the EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) training and certification program, which emphasizes the importance of understanding and implementing a threat intelligence-driven SOC12. The CSA program also covers the use of threat intelligence for enhanced incident detection1. The EC-Council materials highlight the need for SOC analysts to understand various types of cyber threats and the importance of threat intelligence in detecting and responding to these threats2.


NEW QUESTION # 56
Where will you find the reputation IP database, if you want to monitor traffic from known bad IP reputation using OSSIM SIEM?

  • A. /etc/siem/ossim/server/reputation.data
  • B. /etc/ossim/server/reputation.data
  • C. /etc/ossim/reputation
  • D. /etc/ossim/siem/server/reputation/data

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 57
Identify the type of attack, an attacker is attempting on www.example.com website.

  • A. Cross-site Scripting Attack
  • B. Denial-of-Service Attack
  • C. Session Attack
  • D. SQL Injection Attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
The scenario depicted suggests an attacker is injecting a script into the URL of the website
"www.example.com" which triggers an alert message. This behavior is characteristic of a Cross-site Scripting (XSS) attack. In XSS attacks, attackers exploit vulnerabilities in web applications to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. The injected scripts can steal user data, deface web pages, or redirect users to malicious sites.
The specific attack vector here involves the attacker adding a script to the URL that causes the website to display an alert message. This indicates that the website is not properly sanitizing its inputs, which is how the attacker is able to execute the script in the context of the user's browser session.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program covers various types of cyberattacks, including XSS attacks. The CSA course materials and study guides provide detailed information on identifying, mitigating, and preventing such attacks, as well as best practices for securing web applications against them.


NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following attack can be eradicated by filtering improper XML syntax?

  • A. Insufficient Logging and Monitoring Attacks
  • B. CAPTCHA Attacks
  • C. SQL Injection Attacks
  • D. Web Services Attacks

Answer: D

Explanation:
Web services attacks can be mitigated by filtering improper XML syntax because these attacks often exploit vulnerabilities in web services that accept XML input. XML filtering ensures that only properly formatted XML data is processed by the web service. This can prevent various forms of XML-related attacks, such as XML injection or XML External Entity (XXE) attacks, where attackers attempt to interfere with the processing of XML data.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program covers the fundamentals of SOC operations, including the identification and validation of intrusion attempts, and the use of SIEM solutions for enhanced threat detection. The program emphasizes the importance of understanding the various types of attacks and the appropriate defensive measures, including the filtering of improper XML syntax to protect against web services attacks12.


NEW QUESTION # 59
Harley is working as a SOC analyst with Powell Tech. Powell Inc. is using Internet Information Service (IIS) version 7.0 to host their website.
Where will Harley find the web server logs, if he wants to investigate them for any anomalies?

  • A. SystemDrive%\inetpub\logs\LogFiles\W3SVCN
  • B. SystemDrive%\ inetpub\LogFiles\logs\W3SVCN
  • C. SystemDrive%\LogFiles\inetpub\logs\W3SVCN
  • D. %SystemDrive%\LogFiles\logs\W3SVCN

Answer: A

Explanation:
For Internet Information Service (IIS) version 7.0, the default location for web server logs is in the directory %SystemDrive%\inetpub\logs\LogFiles. Within this directory, you will find subfolders named W3SVCN, where N is a number that corresponds to the site ID of the IIS instance. These folders contain the log files for each website hosted on the server. Harley, as a SOC analyst, can investigate these logs for any anomalies by accessing this path.
References: The information provided aligns with the standard practices and configurations for IIS 7.0 as outlined in Microsoft's official documentation123. These references are part of the learning resources for understanding the management and structure of IIS logs, which are crucial for a SOC Analyst's role in monitoring and analyzing web server activity for security purposes. The EC-Council's SOC Analyst course and study guides also emphasize the importance of log file analysis in identifying and responding to security incidents.


NEW QUESTION # 60
What type of event is recorded when an application driver loads successfully in Windows?

  • A. Success Audit
  • B. Information
  • C. Error
  • D. Warning

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Windows, when an application driver loads successfully, it is recorded as an "Information" event in the Event Viewer. This type of event indicates the successful operation of an application or system component, which in this case is the loading of a driver. Information events are typically used to log the normal operations of software and hardware, providing a record that can be useful for troubleshooting and monitoring system activity.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (C|SA) program covers the types of events recorded in Windows systems, including the significance of Information events. This knowledge is essential for SOC analysts who monitor and analyze logs as part of their role in identifying and responding to security incidents. The details about event types and their implications are included in the official EC-Council SOC Analyst study guides and courses1234.


NEW QUESTION # 61
In which log collection mechanism, the system or application sends log records either on the local disk or over the network.

  • A. push-based
  • B. signature-based
  • C. rule-based
  • D. pull-based

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a push-based log collection mechanism, the system or application actively sends (or "pushes") log records to a designatedstorage location, which can be either on the local disk or over a network to a remote server.
This is in contrast to a pull-based mechanism, where the log records are retrieved (or "pulled") by the management server from the devices.
The push-based mechanism is often used for real-time monitoring and alerting because it allows for immediate transfer of log data as events occur. This method ensures that log records are consistently and reliably sent to a central repository without the need for a third-party service to request or retrieve them.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program includes the study of various log collection mechanisms as part of its curriculum. The CSA study materials provide detailed explanations of push-based and other log collection mechanisms, emphasizing their role in effective security operations center (SOC) monitoring and incident response. For further information, please refer to the official EC-Council CSA study guides and related course materials.


NEW QUESTION # 62
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EC-COUNCIL 312-39 (Certified SOC Analyst (CSA)) Certification Exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals who are responsible for monitoring and detecting security incidents within an organization's network. Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certification exam is intended for security professionals, system administrators, and network administrators who are tasked with identifying, analyzing, and responding to security incidents.

 

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